The marked price of a refrigerator is ₹50,000. The dealer offe... | Stage I (CBT I) MCQ | Examoogle

Examoogle • User • info@examoogle.com • EE-2024-8821

Chapter 1 of 12 • Page 1 of 248🔒 Protected PDF • Watermarked

Stage I (CBT I)RRB ALP CBT-I 11 Mar, 2026 Shift 1

The marked price of a refrigerator is ₹50,000. The dealer offered three successive discounts of 15%, 20%, and 30%. The selling price will be:

₹23,450

₹23,800

₹24,050

₹24,500

Correct Answer

📚 GK • GK Direct FormulaStage I (CBT I)RRB ALP CBT-I 11 Mar, 2026 Shift 1

Option B

₹23,800

Quick Summary:

Given: Marked Price (MP) = ₹50,000, Successive discounts = 15%, 20%, and 30%

📐MAMath SolutionDirect Formula

📋 Given

Marked Price (MP) = ₹50,000, Successive discounts = 15%, 20%, and 30%

🔢 Formula Used

SP=MP×(1−d1100)×(1−d2100)×(1−d3100)\text{SP} = \text{MP} \times \left(1 - \frac{d_1}{100}\right) \times \left(1 - \frac{d_2}{100}\right) \times \left(1 - \frac{d_3}{100}\right)SP=MP×(1−100d1​​)×(1−100d2​​)×(1−100d3​​)

⚡ Exam Hall Shortcut / Speed Trick

Use successive multiplying factors: $\text{SP} = 50000 \times 0.85 \times 0.80 \times 0.70$ . Since $50000 \times 0.80 = 40000$ , we simply calculate $40000 \times 0.85 \times 0.70 = 34000 \times 0.70 = 23800$ .

⚠️ Common Student Trap / Pitfall

Adding the discounts directly ( $15\% + 20\% + 30\% = 65\%$ ) to calculate a $65\%$ total discount, which yields ₹17,500 instead of calculating them successively on the remaining balance.

📊 Diagram / Illustration

🔢 Step-by-Step Solution

Identify Given Parameters

Note down the Marked Price (MP) and the three successive discounts ( $d_1, d_2, d_3$ ).

MP=₹50,000,d1=15%,d2=20%,d3=30%\text{MP} = \text{₹}50,000, \quad d_1 = 15\%, \quad d_2 = 20\%, \quad d_3 = 30\%MP=₹50,000,d1​=15%,d2​=20%,d3​=30%

Apply Successive Discount Formula

Substitute the given values into the successive discount formula for Selling Price.

SP=50000×(1−15100)×(1−20100)×(1−30100)\text{SP} = 50000 \times \left(1 - \frac{15}{100}\right) \times \left(1 - \frac{20}{100}\right) \times \left(1 - \frac{30}{100}\right)SP=50000×(1−10015​)×(1−10020​)×(1−10030​)

Simplify Fractional Factors

Convert each percentage deduction into its multiplying fraction factor.

SP=50000×85100×80100×70100\text{SP} = 50000 \times \frac{85}{100} \times \frac{80}{100} \times \frac{70}{100}SP=50000×10085​×10080​×10070​

Calculate the Final Amount

Cancel out common zeros and solve for the final value.

SP=50000×0.85×0.80×0.70=₹23,800\text{SP} = 50000 \times 0.85 \times 0.80 \times 0.70 = \text{₹}23,800SP=50000×0.85×0.80×0.70=₹23,800

✅

B is correct because calculating the final selling price using successive discount factors gives ₹23,800.

Core Concepts Used

Click any tag to open in AI Tutor

Successive Discounts Marked Price and Selling Price Percentage Multiplying Factors

💡 EXAM TIP

Successive percentage reductions follow the exact same compounding principle as depreciating assets in compound interest problems ( $V = P(1-r/100)^n$ ).

Discussion (0)

Loading discussion...

Prev Next

Correct Answer

Related Questions

Discussion (0)